What's the first wrong statement in the proof below that $ \triangle CEF \cong \triangle CEB$ $ \; ?$ $ \overline{BC} $ is parallel to $ \overline{DF} $. This diagram is not drawn to scale. $A$ $B$ $C$ $D$ $E$ $F$ Givens $ \angle ECF \cong \angle BDE$ $, \ $ $ \overline{CE} \cong \overline{DE}$ $, \ $ $ \angle CEF \cong \angle BED$ $, \ $ $ \overline{CE} \cong \overline{AC}$ $, \ $ $ \angle CEF \cong \angle BAC$ $, \ $ and $\ $ $ \overline{EF} \cong \overline{AB}$ Proof $ \triangle CAB \cong \triangle CEF$ because SAS $ \overline{BC} \cong \overline{CF}$ because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent $ \triangle DEB \cong \triangle CEF$ because ASA $ \overline{BE} \cong \overline{EF}$ because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent $ \triangle CEB \cong \triangle CEF$ because SSS
Explanation: Try going through the proof yourself: write down the givens, and then see if they justify the next step for the reason given. Then do the same thing for the next step, and the next, until you run into something that you can't justify, or you finish the proof. There is no wrong statement in this proof.